Chapter 1
You Can Have A Happy Future!
Paragraph 6 states:
The well-known
historical figure Jesus Christ described this feature of the knowledge of God in clear terms. He said: “This means everlasting
life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ.” (John
17:3)…[1]
For comparison, 72
Bible translations/versions [2]
were consulted. The Bible in Basic English indicates “have knowledge,” the Daniel Mace New Testament indicates
“acknowledge,” and the Orthodox Jewish Brit Chadasha indicates "have da'as" in John 17:3. Otherwise, the
remaining 67 consulted Bibles indicate “know” or “knowing” (and spelling variations thereof)
rather than “taking in knowledge” as reflected by the NWT in John 17:3. The translation of the Greek word in question
is in red.
John 17:3
And this is life eternal,
that they might know thee, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.
(KJV)
"This is eternal
life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent.
(NASB)
Now this is eternal
life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent.
(NIV)
This means everlasting
life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you
sent forth, Jesus Christ. (NWT)
The word in question has
a Strong’s number of 1097 and is transliterated from the original Greek as ginosko. How does Strong’s define
ginosko?
G1097
γινώσκω
ginōskō (ghin-oce'-ko) A prolonged form of a primary verb; to “know” (absolutely), in a great variety
of applications and with many implications…allow, be aware (of), feel, (have) known (-ledge), perceive, be resolved,
can speak, be sure, understand. [3]
Thayer’s defines ginosko as:
1. to learn to know, come to know, get a knowledge of, perceive, feel
a. to become known
2. to know, understand, perceive, have knowledge of
a. to understand
b. to know
3. Jewish idiom for sexual intercourse between a man and a woman
4. to become acquainted with, to know [4]
Vine’s Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words also states, “In the NT ginosko frequently indicates a relationship
between the person ‘knowing’ and the object known; in this respect, what is ‘known’ is of value or
importance to the one who knows, and hence the establishment of the relationship…” [5]
Baker’s Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology states, “The New Testament emphasizes that knowing God is
not simply on intellectual apprehension, but a response of faith and an acceptance of Christ.” [6]
Albert Barnes says of John 17:3, “The word ‘know’ here, as in other places, expresses more
than a mere speculative acquaintance with the character and perfections of God. ‘It includes all the impressions on
the mind and life which a just view of God and of the Saviour is fitted to produce.’ It includes, of course, love, reverence,
obedience, honor, gratitude, supreme affection. ‘To know God as he is’ is to know and regard him as a lawgiver,
a sovereign, a parent, a friend. It is to yield the whole soul to him, and strive to obey his law.” [7]
The footnote for John 17:3 in the NET Bible states:
…(abundant)
eternal life is defined as knowing (being in relationship with) the Father and the Son…For John this knowledge is
not intellectual, but relational. It involves being in relationship. [8] (emphasis mine)
Does “taking in knowledge” encompass the shades of meaning present in ginosko?
No.
Turning to Thayer’s, we find an entry for a word that is translated “take knowledge
of,” as proposed by the NWT’s translation of ginosko in John 17:3. That word is epiginosko and is
defined in Thayer’s as:
1. to become thoroughly acquainted with, to know thoroughly
a. to know accurately, know well
2. to know
a. to recognise
1. by sight, hearing, of certain signs, to perceive who a person is
b. to know i.e. to perceive
c. to know i.e. to find out, ascertain
d. to know i.e. to understand [9]
None of these definitions for epiginsoko (“take knowledge of”) implies a
personal relationship and needless to say, epiginosko is not used in John 17:3. Ginosko is.
Ginosko is much more than epiginosko as “take knowledge of” (or “taking
in knowledge” as translated by the NWT). Ginosko means knowing absolutely, perceiving, understanding and forming
a relationship. The NWT’s translation of ginosko in John 17:3, “taking in knowledge,” does not
reflect building a relationship with Yahweh and Jesus Christ. The emphasis of the NWT translation of ginosko is scholarly
learning, for where in “taking in knowledge” is a relationship implied? Memorizing details about a celebrity’s
life and preferences doesn’t mean that I know that celebrity, though it could certainly be said that I would be “taking
in knowledge” of that celebrity. Similarly, memorizing Bible facts does not equate to knowing (forming a relationship
with) Yahweh and Jesus Christ. For this reason, I object – strenuously and fervently – to the NWT’s translation
of ginosko as “taking in knowledge.”
In this regard, John 5:39, 40 is particularly apropos:
[39] Search the
scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me. [40] And ye will not come to
me, that ye might have life. (KJV)
[39] "You search
the Scriptures because you think that in them you have eternal life; it is these that testify about Me; [40] and you are unwilling
to come to Me so that you may have life. (NASB)
[39] You diligently
study the Scriptures because you think that by them you possess eternal life. These are the Scriptures that testify about
me, [40] yet you refuse to come to me to have life. (NIV)
[39] “YOU
are searching the Scriptures, because YOU think that by means of them YOU will have everlasting life; and these are the very
ones that bear witness about me. [40] And yet YOU do not want to come to me that YOU may have life. (NWT)
To be fair, paragraph 18 in this same chapter of KNOWLEDGE that Leads to Everlasting Life
states, “The knowledge of God can also do much for you right now. Life’s deepest and
most disturbing questions are answered in the Bible. Accepting its guidance will help you to develop a friendship with
God…” [10] (emphasis mine).
I do not contend that JW doctrine asserts that Bible knowledge alone leads to salvation. The
above clearly states that accepting the Bible and what it says about Yahweh and Jesus will help us form a relationship (“friendship”)
with God and various quotes from JW literature indicates this as well. My argument, in this instance, is not with JW doctrine
(though JW salvation doctrine will be addressed later on this site). My objection lies with the translation offered
for ginosko in that “taking in knowledge” is insufficient because a personal relationship with God is not
involved or implied. JWs teach may teach that forming a relationship with God leads to salvation, but this translation of
John 17:3 certainly gives us no indication of that.
***
Paragraph 8 states:
What the Bible says about the future of the earth and mankind might be summed up in
one word – Paradise! Jesus Christ spoke of it when he
told a dying man: “You will be with me in Paradise.” (Luke 23:43) The mention of Paradise no doubt brought to that man’s mind the happy state of our
first parents, Adam and Eve…[11]
What is Paradise?
The word translated as Paradise in these verses is paradeisos in the original Greek. Strong’s
entry for paradeisos reads as follows:
G3857
παράδεισος
paradeisos
par-ad'-i-sos
Of Oriental origin (compare [H6508]); a park, that is, (specifically) an Eden (place of future happiness, “paradise”): - paradise
[12].
And Thayer’s:
G3857
παράδεισος
paradeisos
1) among the Persians a grand enclosure or preserve, hunting ground,
park, shady and well watered, in which wild animals, were kept for the hunt; it was enclosed by walls and furnished with towers
for the hunters
2) a garden, pleasure ground
2a)
grove, park
3) the part of Hades which was thought by the later Jews to be the
abode of the souls of pious until the resurrection: but some understand this to be a heavenly paradise
4) the upper regions of the heavens. According to the early church
Fathers, the paradise in which our first parents dwelt before the fall still exists, neither on the earth or in the heavens,
but above and beyond the world
5) heaven [13]
The American Tract Society
Bible Dictionary states, “In the New Testament, ‘paradise’
is put, in allusion to the paradise of Eden, for the place where the souls of the blessed enjoy happiness. Thus our Savior
tells the penitent thief on the cross, ‘Today shalt thou be with me in paradise;’ that is, in the state of the
blessed.” [14] Easton’s
Bible Dictionary says paradise, “…came in course of time to be used as a name for the world of happiness and
rest hereafter,” [15]
and according to Smith’s Theological Dictionary, “It is applied figuratively to the celestial dwelling
of the righteous, in allusion to the garden of Eden.” [16]
Paradeisos is only used three times in the New Testament. Here, in Luke 23:43 and in the following verses:
2 Corinthians 12:2, 4
Reading in context with
paradeisos highlighted in red:
[2] I knew a man
in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth;)
such an one caught up to the third heaven. [4] How that he was caught up into paradise,
and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter. (KJV)
[2] I know a man
in Christ who fourteen years ago--whether in the body I do not know, or out of the body I do not know, God knows--such a man
was caught up to the third heaven. [4] was caught up into Paradise and heard inexpressible words, which a man is not permitted to speak. (NASB)
[2] I know a man
in Christ who fourteen years ago was caught up to the third heaven. Whether it was in the body or out of the body I do not
know - God knows. [4] was caught up to paradise.
He heard inexpressible things, things that man is not permitted to tell. (NIV)
[2] I know a man
in union with Christ who, fourteen years ago – whether in the body I do not know, or out of the body I do not know;
God knows – was caught away as such to the third heaven. [4] that he was caught
away into paradise and heard unutterable words which it is not lawful for a man to
speak. (NWT)
Please note that the “third
heaven” spoken of in 2 Corinthians 12:2 is called “paradise” in 2 Corinthians 12:4.
What, then, is the third
heaven?
According to Barnes’
Notes on the Bible:
“…the Bible speaks of but three
heavens; and among the Jews in the apostolic ages, also, the heavens were divided into three:
(1.) The aerial, including the clouds and the
atmosphere, the heavens above us, until we come to the stars.
(2.) The starry heavens--the heavens in which
the sun, moon, and stars appear to be situated.
(3.) The heavens beyond
the stars. That heaven was supposed to be the residence of God, of angels, and of holy spirits. It was this upper heaven,
the dwelling-place of God, to which Paul was taken, and whose wonders he was permitted to behold--this region where God dwelt,
where Christ was seated at the right hand of the Father, and where the spirits of the just were assembled.” [17]
Matthew Henry’s
Complete Commentary on the Whole Bible agrees:
“…he was
caught up into the third heaven, the heaven of the blessed, above the aërial heaven, in which the fowls fly, above
the starry heaven, which is adorned with those glorious orbs: it was into the third heaven, where God most eminently manifests
his glory…This third heaven is called paradise (2 Corinthians 12:4), in allusion to the earthly paradise out of which
Adam was driven for his transgression; it is called the paradise of God (Revelation 2:7), signifying to us that by Christ
we are restored to all the joys and honours we lost by sin, yea, to much better.” [18]
David Guzik further states:
“...Paul is using terminology common
in that day, which referred to the "blue sky" as the first heaven, the "starry sky" as the second heaven, and
the third heaven as the place where God lived and reigned.” [19]
The JW I study with indicated
that the third heaven Paul spoke of in 2 Corinthians 12:2 is the future paradise earth, that Paul was transported forward
in time or was allowed to see a vision of the future. The JW also stated that the phrase “caught up into the third heaven”
should be taken metaphorically, that the phrase was used only to emphasize the intense spiritual connection Paul had experienced.
Is either of these alternatives
possible?
Needless to say, nothing
is impossible for God so could God have transported Paul in time or revealed a future earthly paradise to him in a vision?
Yes. Paul himself indicated that he did not know whether he was in his corporeal, physical body or out of his body during
this revelation. A vision or visit to a future paradise earth is certainly within the realm of possibility of the powers of
our Almighty God.
As far as “caught
up into the third heaven” as a metaphor is concerned, The Adam Clarke Commentary states:
“In the sacred writings three
heavens only are mentioned. The first is the atmosphere, what appears to be intended by rekia, the firmament
or expansion, Genesis 1:6. The second, the starry heaven; where are the sun, moon, planets, and stars; but these two
are often expressed under the one term shamayim, the two heavens, or expansions, and in Genesis 1:17, they appear
to be both expressed by rekia hashshamayim, the firmament of heaven. And, thirdly, the place of the
blessed, or the throne of the Divine glory, probably expressed by the words shemei hashshamayim, the heavens
of heavens. But on these subjects the Scripture affords us but little light; and on this distinction the reader is not
desired to rely.
Much more may be seen
in Schoettgen, who has exhausted the subject; and who has shown that ascending to heaven, or being caught
up to heaven, is a form of speech among the Jewish writers to express the highest degrees of inspiration. They
often say of Moses that he ascended on high, ascended on the firmament, ascended to heaven; where it is evident
they mean only by it that he was favoured with the nearest intimacy with God, and the highest revelations relative to his
will…” [20]
Could Paul be using a figure
of speech to indicate the intensity of his experience only? E.W. Bullinger’s Figures of Speech Used in the Bible
Explained and Illustrated [21]
does not list or even mention “caught up into the third heaven” or anything similar as a figure of speech as described
above, but Clarke certainly indicates this is might be so.
Alfred Edersheim,
in the preface of his classic book, The Life and Times of Jesus
the Messiah, however, recommends caution:
“…Those
who have consulted the works of Lightfoot, Schöttgen, Meuschen, Wetstein and Wünsche, or
even the extracts from them presented in Commentaries, know that the help derived from their Jewish references is very great.
And yet, despite the immense learning and industry of these writers, there are serious drawbacks to their use. Sometimes the
references are critically not quite accurate; sometimes they are derived from works that should not have been adduced in evidence;
occasionally, either the rendering, or the application of what is separated from its context, is not reliable. A still more
serious objection is, that these quotations are not unfrequently one sided; but chiefly this - perhaps, as the necessary consequence
of being merely illustrative notes to certain verses in the Gospels - that they do not present a full and connected picture.
And yet it is this which so often gives the most varied and welcome illustration of the Gospel narratives...” [22]
Given the conflict in commentary
on the subject, the issue of whether or not Paul experienced a literal or metaphoric “third heaven” should not
be absolutely determined inside the context of 2 Corinthians 12:2,4 alone. The other Biblical texts in which paradise occurs
must be consulted.
Please note, as well, that
in both 2 Corinthians 12:2 and in 2 Corinthians 12:4, Paul uses the words “caught up” in regards to both the third
heaven and Paradise in the KJV, NASB and NIV while the NWT uses “caught away as such” to the third heaven and
“caught away” to Paradise. I cannot hazard to guess as to the reason for this variation in wording since the same
word, harpazo in Greek, is used in both 2 Corinthians 12:2 and 2 Corinthians 12:4, but the differentiation isn’t
standard among other translations. Of the 72 examined [23], only 5 and the NWT [24] use different words to translate this same word, harpazo, differentiating
its use in 2 Corinthians 12:2 from that of 2 Corinthians 12:4. Some of the 5 that differ are contemporary
language translations given to paraphrase more so than the more literal, word-for-word translations, but the WTBTS does not
contend that the NWT is a contemporary language translation. As such, the addition of “as such” to 2 Corinthians
12:2 in the NWT is completely unnecessary and unwarranted.
Revelation 2:7
(paradeisos highlighted in red)
He that hath an
ear, let him hear what the Spirit saith unto the churches; To him that overcometh will I give to eat of the tree of life,
which is in the midst of the paradise of God. (KJV)
`He who has an
ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. To him who overcomes, I will grant to eat of the tree of life which
is in the Paradise of God.’
(NASB)
He who has an ear,
let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches. To him who overcomes, I will give the right to eat from the tree of life,
which is in the paradise of God. (NIV)
Let the one who
has an ear hear what the spirit says to the congregations: To him that conquers I will grant to eat of the tree of life, which
is in the paradise of God.
(NWT)
The relevant phrase in this
verse is, “which is in the Paradise of God” (emphasis mine). Please
note the tense of the verb used in this phrase: is. The word in Greek is esti, which both Strong’s [25] and Thayer’s [26] indicates is the third person singular present indicative. This message was
directed to the church of Ephesus, in John’s day. The present tense of the verb “is”
indicates that Paradise existed, currently existed, even then. This present tense rules out a future-only Paradise,
be it on earth or otherwise. Paradise existed because Jesus promised it to overcomers in Ephesus, told the Ephesian church that the promised Paradise “is.”
As for its location, earth
certainly wasn’t a paradise at the time of John and the Ephesian church. So the paradise spoken of must be located somewhere
else. Where else? In the third heaven, as Paul indicated in 2 Corinthians 12:2,4. Not a metaphoric third heaven. A literal
place.
In summary, paradeisos is used only three times in the New Testament. In Luke 23:43, Jesus
Christ tells the thief on the cross that he will be with Jesus in Paradise. In 2 Corinthians 12:4, Paul
indicates that he was caught up into Paradise, which he told us is the “third heaven” in 2 Corinthians 12:2. Finally,
in Revelation 2:7, Paradise is said to currently exist in John’s day. Since earth was not a paradise
at the time of John and the Ephesian church, Paradise must be located elsewhere. Paul locates Paradise in the “third
heaven.” Ergo, Jesus told the thief that he would be with Jesus in a paradise that already existed, in the “third
heaven,” the Heaven of God.
Comma placement, Luke 23:43
Luke 23:43
And Jesus said
unto him, Verily I say unto thee, To day shalt thou be with me in paradise. (KJV)
And He said to
him, "Truly I say to you, today you shall be with Me in Paradise." (NASB)
Jesus answered
him, "I tell you the truth, today you will be with me in paradise." (NIV)
And he said to
him: “Truly I tell you today, You will be with me in Paradise.” (NWT)
As noted above, the NWT
places the comma after “today” in Luke 23:43 while KJV, NASB and NIV place the comma before “today.”
In fact, all 72 translations [27]
I consulted placed the comma/break before “today” -- except the NWT, the Peshita-Lamsa Translation and The J.B. Rotherham Emphasized Bible [28]. Why is the placement of a comma important? The question lies in what phrase
“today” modifies. Is Jesus telling the thief today? Or will the thief be in Paradise that day? The comma
tells the tale. If “today” indicates when Jesus is speaking, it doesn’t change Christian doctrine in the
slightest. If, however, “today” indicates when the thief will be in Paradise, the effects on
JW doctrine are disastrous.
The original Greek did not
have punctuation marks so it is left to translators to decide how punctuation is to be used in the text. To determine where
the comma should be placed in Luke 23:43, we should look to how similar phrases and grammatical constructions are punctuated.
Jesus frequently used the
phrase, “verily I say unto you” (KJV), “Truly, I say to you” (NASB), “I tell you the truth”
(NIV), or “Truly, I tell you” (NWT). All of these translations correspond to the same phrase in transliterated
Greek, amhn legw soi/umin. Variations are made in this basic construct based on whether or not who or whom Jesus was
speaking to was one specific person (soi) [29]
or a group of people (umin) [30].
Some amhn legw soi/umin sayings include conjunctions such as “for” (gar) [31], but the amhn legw soi/umin form remains basically the
same in its essence.
Jesus alone uses the amhn
legw soi/umin phrase. He used it 74 times in the New Testament [32] (click on the link at the bottom of this page to review each of these amhn legw
soi/umin statements) and in each instance, the amhn legw soi/umin saying is used as an introductory phrase independent
of what follows it. These breaks from the subsequent text are initiated immediately after the amhn legw soi/umin phrases
and are indicated by a comma or by following the phrase with the word “that” in all 74 amhn legw soi/umin
statements in the NWT with only one exception – Luke 23:43.
Amnh legw soi Vs. Amhn soi legw
JW apologists protest that
Luke 23:43 is not grammatically identical to the other 73 amhn legw soi/umin statements
and this precludes Luke 23:43 from the amhn legw soi/umin subset. In a sense, they are correct. Luke
23:43 does differ from the other amhn legw soi/umin statements in that the Luke 23:43 construct is amhn soi legw
while the others are amhn legw soi. The pronoun (soi or umin) precedes the verb in Luke 23:43 whereas in the other amhn legw soi/umin statements, the pronoun follows the verb.
I do not pretend to be a
Greek scholar, but even I know, from my personal studies in Biblical languages, that words are frequently moved forward in
a sentence to emphasize that particular word in Koine (Biblical) Greek. There were two thieves crucified with Jesus. One remained
unrepentant while the other asked Jesus to remember him when Jesus came into his Kingdom. Jesus could have emphasized soi
in this instance to single out the thief who had faith from the thief who remained unrepentant. Or maybe Jesus emphasized
soi to indicate even somebody like the thief could and would be in Paradise. Whatever the case may be, the fact
that soi comes before the verb in Luke 23:43 effects emphasis only. It doesn’t change what the phrase means and
therefore, does not preclude Luke 23:43 from the other 73 amhn legw soi/umin statements. [33]
Emphasizing amhn legw soi/umin
One argument for the comma
being placed after rather than before “today” in Luke 23:43 is that Jesus was emphasizing the very day of his
statement (as opposed to emphasizing the thief above) because it was that very day that the thief exhibited great faith:
…It was a day
when Jesus had been rejected and condemned by the highest-ranking religious leaders of his own people and was thereafter sentenced
to die by Roman authority. He had become an object of scorn and ridicule. So the wrongdoer alongside him had shown a notable
quality and commendable heart attitude in not going along with the crowd but, rather, speaking out in Jesus’ behalf
and expressing belief in his coming Kingship.[34]
How did Jesus place emphasis
on the other amhn legw soi/umin statements in the Gospels?
In the Gospel of John, Jesus
places emphasis on amhn legw soi/umin statements 22 times by repeating amhn [35]. (Click on the link at the bottom of this page to review these
emphasized amhn amhn legw soi/umin statements.) In these instances, instead of reading amhn legw soi/umin (“verily
I say unto you” in the KJV), you would read amhn amhn legw soi/umin (“verily, verily, I say unto you”
in the KJV). Emphasis is used by repeating amhn, not by using a time modifier such as “today.”
Jesus’ other legw soi/umin statements [36]
As previously stated, there
are 74 amhn legw soi/umin statements in the New Testament. Jesus spoke an additional 63 legw soi/umin (“I
say unto you” in the KJV) statements [37]
as well. If we remove Luke 23:43 from the list of verses in this pool, we are left with a grand total of 136
legw soi/umin statements. None of these statements are modified by time. None. The burden of contextual proof rest
with the JWs to support their contention that Jesus broke the pattern he set in these 136 statements to use time to modify
one particular amhn legw soi/umin saying in Luke 23:43.
JW apologists assert that
“today” modifies amhn legw soi/umin in Luke 23:43 in the same way that “today” modifies and
emphasizes speech verb phrases in the Old Testament, such as:
Deuteronomy 4:40
Thou shalt keep
therefore his statutes, and his commandments, which I command thee this day, that it
may go well with thee, and with thy children after thee, and that thou mayest prolong thy days upon the earth, which the LORD
thy God giveth thee, for ever. (KJV)
"So you shall keep
His statutes and His commandments which I am giving you today, that it may go well
with you and with your children after you, and that you may live long on the land which the LORD your God is giving you for
all time." (NASB)
Keep his decrees
and commands, which I am giving you today, so that it may go well with you and your
children after you and that you may live long in the land the LORD your God gives you for all time. (NIV)
And
you must keep his regulations and his commandments that I am commanding you today,
that it may go well with you and your sons after you, and in order that you may lengthen your days on the soil that Jehovah
your God is giving you, always.” (NWT)
However, an examination
of these Old Testament statements reveals a pattern quite different from the pattern in Luke 23:43. None of these Old Testament
statements include either amhn or legw in the Greek translations from the original Hebrew. Not even one.
Both amhn and legw
are specific to Jesus’ statements, distinctive. They operate as a signature, separating the amhn legw soi/umin sayings
from others in the New Testament. We cannot consider the amhn legw soi/umin statements without amhn and certainly
not without legw. Yet, JWs insist that an Old Testament idiomatic use of “today” in statements that do
not include Jesus’ key words -- the very words that define this unique subset – supersedes the pattern Jesus established
in 73 statements that do include the words that define the subset. In effect, they demand that we ignore the very words
we seek to study. Instead of studying the legw Jesus used in this unique subset, we must resort to studying generic
speech verbs. From the Old Testament (whose canon was closed some 400 years before Jesus was born), no less.
JWs claim that using “today”
as a modifier of speech verbs to place emphasis, per these Old Testament statements, was common in Jesus’ day. JWs frequently
point to Acts 20:26 (also written by Luke):
Wherefore I take
you to record this day, that I am pure from the blood of all men.
(KJV)
"Therefore, I testify
to you this day that I am innocent of the blood of all men.
(NASB)
Therefore, I declare
to you today that I am innocent of the blood of all men. (NIV)
Hence
I call YOU to witness this very day that I am clean from the blood of all men, (NWT)
In Acts 20:26, “today” is said to modify and emphasize “testify” (NASB). But if the idiom
was common, we would expect to find other examples in the Scriptures. We do not. I didn’t, at any rate. Claiming the
idiom as common, when there is only one example of it in the New Testament, far overstates the Scriptural evidence. Perhaps
idiomatic usage of “today” was common in New Testament times. I do not know. But it’s certainly not common
in the New Testament writings, which is what we are concerned with here. Forcing an idiomatic usage of “today”
on Luke 23:43 on the basis of one New Testament example in Acts 20:26 and generalizing the distinctive legw Jesus used
in order to make the Old Testament pattern fit violates the very amhn legw soi/umin pattern we seek to study.
We must also consider the
significance of amhn. What function does amhn perform? It emphasizes the legw soi/umin saying. As noted
before, amhn is repeated to lend special emphasis to legw soi/umin sayings. Emphasis has already been stressed
by using amhn. Another modifier would be superfluous and break the pattern of how Jesus emphasized these sayings in
every other instance.
In summary, Jesus would not have used “today” to emphasize his amhn legw soi/umin
saying because a pattern of repeating amhn to place emphasis on amhn legw soi/umin sayings is evident in the
New Testament. Time is never used to modify any of the other 73 amhn legw soi/umin sayings in the New Testament, nor
is time ever used to modify Jesus’ 63 other legw soi/umin (“I say unto you,” KJV) statements.
Combined, these 136 statements form a pattern of an independent introductory phrase that requires convincing contextual evidence
that Jesus, in one instance, would break his established pattern. Statements in the Old Testament in which “today”
is used to modify a speech verb has been offered by JWs as this evidence, but the pattern in these statements is not the same
unique amhn legw soi/umin pattern used in Luke 23:43 and other legw soi/umin statements.
Why JWs insist on the NWT’s comma placement
As previously stated, if
“today” modifies Jesus’ amhn legw soi/umin statement in Luke 23:43, the effects on traditional Christian
doctrine are negligible, but if “today” identifies when the thief will be in Paradise, the results on
JW doctrine are disastrous. How so?
JWs teach that there is
no immortal soul. When you die, you die. That’s it. End of story. You don’t go to Heaven or Hell. You cease to
exist. Finit. Therefore, according to JW doctrine, Jesus couldn’t have told the thief that he would be in Paradise
with Jesus that very day. The thief died so JWs believe the thief ceased to exist that very day, just as JWs believe we all
cease to exist the moment we die. If Jesus told the thief he would be with him in Paradise that very day, it
proves an immortal soul that lives on after death and nullifies this JW doctrine. So JWs tend to be very dogmatic about the
NWT’s comma placement. The reader should be completely familiar with both the arguments for and against the NWT’s
comma placement before pursuing this debate with any JW.
Also, to be completely fair,
I must admit that this argument with Chapter 1 of the KNOWLEDGE [38] book is a sidebar issue of that chapter. Paragraph 8 completely omits the amhn
legw soi/umin saying that precedes Jesus’ statement in Luke 23:43, as well as “today”
(which JWs contend modifies the omitted amhn legw soi/umin saying) so the issue with comma placement isn’t outright
and immediately noticeable to the casual reader.
[1] WatchTower Bible and Tract Society
of New York, Inc. KNOWLEDGE that Leads to Everlasting Life, 1995.
[2] Please see Bibles Consulted page
of this site for more information.
[3] Strong, James. “Entry for
G1097 ‘ginosko.’” Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible. 1890.
[4] Thayer, Joseph
H. “Entry for G1097 ‘ginosko.’” Thayer’s Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament,
1896.
[5] Vine, W.E. “Entry for A1.
Know, Known, Knowledge, Unknown [Verb], ‘ginosko’”. Vine’s Complete Expository Dictionary
of Old and New Testament Words. 1966.
[6] Elwell, Walter A. “Entry
for ‘Know, Knowledge’”. Baker’s Evangelical Dictionary of Biblical Theology, 1996.
[7] Barnes, Albert. "Commentary on
John 17:3." " Barnes' Notes on the Bible. 1798-1870.